Thanks for the note. I think u mean why didn't God provide protection for men with insecure wives.

I confess I don't know enough about the customs, culture and economic situations at the time to offer an opinion right now. I do know, however, that asking why an ancient community didn't do this or do that (coupled with our modern-day presumptions), is probably something which takes a lot of time and humility.

Right now, I'm not even sure if God DIDN'T "provide any protection for men with insecure wives"! I am aware that, at least during OT times, punishments for adultery apply to both genders and, yes, unfortunately they come across as extremely harsh to us.

Perhaps we can both read up more from Deut and Leviticus and Numbers and try to compare the punishments and 'tests' meted out? Honestly. It could be eye-opening!

As to the issue of whether it's so wonderful being tested, I can assure you that if you read the OT laws, there's a LOT of it which wouldn't sound "wonderful" to men, to women, the families, etc. I'm curious, though, on what we intend to make of it? What level of 'wonderful' do we believe ppl in ancient times should be permitted failing which....what exactly? How sure are we that we're not simply reading our own personal requirements into it?